Derram! Thanks for all you do for voat with your bot!
On to your question: my post is admittedly a throwaway I made expecting to get banned by the mod here, and written to annoy him.
However, I can defend it. First I’ll cede your core argument: being the victim of a negative act is not proof of one’s malevolence.
However, knowing an event is frequent should give one reason to ask why.
In the context of “hate speech”, largely the best rationales given are shades of “it makes us feel bad” and “it invites violence”. The second I will hand wave away as calls to incite are already classified as “not protected speech”, nor would I argue for them to be included. The first I simply won’t bother with.
The context of the expulsion is also different. I could expand it to millions of sub groups of Jews in europe vs only hundreds of websites and be accurate in my statement, I would argue that website expulsions largely can be classified as a single event. They occurred only within the past decade and within the current monoculture of the mainstream internet. On the other hand, the Jewish expulsions took place across many civilizations speaking dozens of languages and dialects often with little normal contact between them and spanning thousands of years. These expulsions can be classified as many different events using the same metrics of classification I use to condense internet expulsions down to a singular event, and so I would argue represent far more evidence of behavior rallying the ire of the host.
Finally, to return to my argument of context: the Jews were largely expulsed under claims such as the ritual sacrifice of gentile children by bleeding them out over hundreds of cuts to celebrate Purim and Passover.
Of note is that the claims against them are given in detail and degree of horror not used when expelling a similar rate excommunicated people; the Roma. The Roma are never claimed to commit the acts common to claims against the Jews when they are frequently expelled from European nations, and yet otherwise their sercumstances are the same.
Why save such outlandish, bizarrely detailed descriptions of horror for the Jews and spare the Roma? If the claims lack base, why such different scapegoats between different peoples?
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derram ago
Racists have been kicked off of way more than 100 websites.
Bet your logic doesn't weigh the same here, huh?
Volcris ago
Derram! Thanks for all you do for voat with your bot!
On to your question: my post is admittedly a throwaway I made expecting to get banned by the mod here, and written to annoy him.
However, I can defend it. First I’ll cede your core argument: being the victim of a negative act is not proof of one’s malevolence.
However, knowing an event is frequent should give one reason to ask why.
In the context of “hate speech”, largely the best rationales given are shades of “it makes us feel bad” and “it invites violence”. The second I will hand wave away as calls to incite are already classified as “not protected speech”, nor would I argue for them to be included. The first I simply won’t bother with.
The context of the expulsion is also different. I could expand it to millions of sub groups of Jews in europe vs only hundreds of websites and be accurate in my statement, I would argue that website expulsions largely can be classified as a single event. They occurred only within the past decade and within the current monoculture of the mainstream internet. On the other hand, the Jewish expulsions took place across many civilizations speaking dozens of languages and dialects often with little normal contact between them and spanning thousands of years. These expulsions can be classified as many different events using the same metrics of classification I use to condense internet expulsions down to a singular event, and so I would argue represent far more evidence of behavior rallying the ire of the host.
Finally, to return to my argument of context: the Jews were largely expulsed under claims such as the ritual sacrifice of gentile children by bleeding them out over hundreds of cuts to celebrate Purim and Passover.
Of note is that the claims against them are given in detail and degree of horror not used when expelling a similar rate excommunicated people; the Roma. The Roma are never claimed to commit the acts common to claims against the Jews when they are frequently expelled from European nations, and yet otherwise their sercumstances are the same.
Why save such outlandish, bizarrely detailed descriptions of horror for the Jews and spare the Roma? If the claims lack base, why such different scapegoats between different peoples?