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OP - https://8ch.net/pol/res/12021208.html
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16079474? ago
Why did Hitler attack USSR?
16079479? ago
Lot to unpack here.
Hitler as he discussed in detail in Mein Kampf wanted to create a German superstate capable of rivaling the United States in terms of its economy and population. To do this, he proposed something we call "lebensraum".
Germany was too small population wise to ever be a global power. So, the idea was that Germany would conquer Eastern Europe (which was filled with Slavic peoples that Hitler considered to be "subhuman"), kill/deport most of the adult native population, have ethnic Germans settle the area, and eventually through breeding "aryans" enough, have an ethnostate controlling all of central and eastern europe.
So a conflict where Germany attacks Russia is inevitable. But why attack the Soviet Union when they did? The Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact heavily favored the Soviets in the long run, and both sides knew this. The most lopsided part was how trade was conducted. Germany NEEDED oil, and they pretty much could only get it from the Soviets. That meant the Soviets could change the cost or cut the supply altogether whenever they wanted which is pretty dangerous for the Germans. Both sides knew that the agreement would only last a few years. The Germans, after realizing that the British weren't going to surrender, decided to attack the Soviets in late spring 1941. This was pretty much the best time they could attack. Before then, the Soviets wouldn't have begun the massive rearmnament and reorganization of the Red Army. And after then, the Red Army would be completely reformed and the Germans wouldn't stand a chance.
Got off topic but does that answer your question?
16079493? ago
He attacked them because they were massing on the border and were going to attack Europe. This is proven easily by the Russians all having no defensive postures, no defensive/local maps, all having inner-European maps (Berlin, France, other major cities and key points). They could not fight back or retreat from the Germans attack because they had no knowledge of the local terrain. They couldnt fall back to any positions. They didnt know where to even run to to hide - they were supposed to be attacking the Germans and overrunning Europe, not defending the Russian border.
The only thing you have right is they needed oil and capturing the capital of Russia would let them sit through the winter and rebuild forces with Russian supplies and manpower.
16079503? ago
The "preemptive strike" theory was made by a Soviet defector in the 80s named Suvurov who cherrypicked evidence and one speech made by Stalin. This theory is no longer supported by any respected historians.
David Glantz and Johnathon House, "When Titans Clashed", ch 3.
The Red Army was inherently offensive in its doctrine. And source that there was no defensive posturing in 1941?
Source?
Which is completely normal for any armed force to have
Source?
How come Soviet border troops weren't fully equipped with enough arms? Why was the majority of the Red Army arrayed throughout the Soviet Union, mainly in the Kiev area, instead of the border? Why was Stalin giving orders to not provoke the German divisions on the border and ordering his own divisions back?
I never said that? The Germans had no chance of ever winning but the best case scenario would be for them to attack south for the oil first and then Moscow second.
What Russian supplies? You mean the ones that got sent further east on trains or the ones that were blown up as soon as they had to be abandoned? And what? Manpower? You do understand that there's not hundreds of thousands of able bodied young German men in Russia, right? The only Soviet populations willing to volunteer were the Ukranians and it only took about a month for them to realize what was happening and stop.