With this whole hysteria about the Corona virus, i think it's fitting to post this to look back in history when disease epidemics ravaged many parts of the world. What better example then the 14th century Black Death which killed off 30 to 60 % of the population in Europe. My personal belief was that this was an effort of population control and NOT a natural occurence. The elites have spoken of using diseases to lower the population many times.

Here is a quote by Betrand Russell;

''War... has hitherto been disappointing in this respect, but perhaps bacteriological war may prove more effective. If a Black Death could be spread throughout the world once every generation survivors could procreate freely without making the world too full''.

First off, we need to debunk the mainstream explanation of this disease being spread by migrating rats which has their origin in China.

The symptoms of the black death were high fevers, fetid breath, coughing, vomiting of blood and foul body odor, red bruising or hemorrhaging of skin and swollen lymph nodes and the bubonic plague has a lot of these symptoms but so does many other diseases so just because the bubonic plague shares a lot the same symptoms seen with the black death does not mean it was the bubonic plague that caused the black death.

Further according to a team of anthropologist, they have concluded that the black death of the 1300s was probably not the modern disease known as the bubonic plague.

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Source: https://archive.ph/7MnqL

Iceland was also heavily affected by the Black Death and but it is widely accepted that Iceland at this time had no rat population.

A bishop of Skalholt who went by the name of Porour Porlaksson wrote a description of Iceland in Latin which was published in year 1666 stated explicity that no rats existed in Iceland but had an abudance of mice.

Is it possible that rats managed to arrive in Iceland through boat travels and spread the disease from there? No.

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Source: Plague without rats: the case of fifteenth-century Iceland, Gunnar Karlsson.

If it was not rats then what was it?

Mainstream text books avoids to talk about who the people at that time blamed the plague on and when they do mention it, they speak of it as nothing more than baseless accusations and just ''anti-semitic'' fairy tales. The main suspects were jews and i fully believe they were responsible for the Black Death.

The chronicle of Hajek of Libocan presents this account;

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According to the author of this source however, he tries to claim that the Hajek of Libocan had reliable sources but edited them using later material and thus can not represent the reality of the 12th century. No matter, this is another interesting example of jews being accused of poisioning gentiles that we must take into consideration.

History of Wroclaw (Breslau) written by Nicolaus Pol states that in 1219, a fire struck Wroclaw which was followed by hunger and plague. In 1226, the jews were expelled from the town. Historian Bächtold-Stäubli speculated that the reason for their expulsion could have been because of well-poisioning accusation of the jews because the expulsion closely followed the plague.

''In 1321, lebers in southwestern France and in Aragon were accused of attempting to spread their illness by poisioning water sources. These charges expanded to include the idea that the plot was intiated by Muslim rulers and aided by the Jews of France''. This led to execution, confinement and expulsion of jews and lepers.

Source: Early accusations of well poisoning against Jews: Medieval Reality or Historiographical Fiction. Medieval Encoutners- Barzilay (2016)

The texts below comes from the source 'The Black Death' by Rosemay Horrox

While lot of these confession were done under torture, they can not be dismissed because they have alot of validity to them because of how detailed the confessions are, providing names, locations and other detailed descriptions. They just do not sound made up.

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Text below is from the source: https://archive.ph/azVnh

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Martin Luther also accused jews of poisoning the wells.

Jewish doctors:

Year 1250 and onwards, medicine became the most common jewish profession after money lending.

''It is well known the practice of medicine was widely spread among the Jews in the Middle Ages. Some two thousand jewish physicians who flourished in this period have been recorded, and the list is manifestly incomplete.''

''As is well known, a very large number of the Jewish rabbis of the Middle Ages, from Maimonides downwards, were at the same time physicians, who attached themselves to these distinguished scholars for the purpose of instruction in rabbinic lore, also learned what they had to teach in medical science and accompanied them on their professional visits. Thus they would attain a certain medical competence, and, if they felt so inclined, could become medical practicioners themselves in due course.''

So a lot of these jewish physicians were religious and followers of the Talmud. Magister Elias of London (13th century), profilic writer on Jewish law, was also a highly-esteemed physician in Gentile circles.

''In 1443, Vitalis Cohen, himself a physician, to teach medicine and Jewish lore (i.e Talmud?) for a year to five youths, their sons, for a fee of ten''

Source: The Qualification of Jewish Physicians in the Middle Ages- Cecil Roth.

''In the 13th and 14th centuries there was a great concentration of Jewish physicians in Southern France''. Also ''Jewish teachers educated in Moorish spain transmitted their knowledge to Southern French students while teaching at the medical school in Montpellier. They also distinguished themselves in religious learning and in the practice of medicine in local community''

Again, notice how these jewish physicians are actively religious.

Source: Jewish physicians in Southern France during the 13th and 14th centuries- Isaac Alteras.

Jewish law does not allow jews to heal Gentiles and it permits jews to poision Gentiles because to cause a death that's not instantaneous is not considered murder according to Talmudic law. Jews being prominent in the area of medicine at this time could mean that they had an understanding of how to create a poison that could cause diseases which were very fatal and could spread easily. Notice how many of these confessions named Rabbis as giving orders and reading from the source above, many doctors were also Rabbis.

It's also curious that the death rate from the plague among jews was significantly less compared that to the Christian death rate. This was a disease that was highly contagious and was not discriminatory so how come jews were less affected by it? Even if jews lived in seperate communities, they still were in contact with gentiles who they made business with for exploitation and because of the disease being non-discrimatory and widely spread, it should have affected them just as much but it didn't. Also many of the Plague doctors did not get infected by this disease, i doubt their outfit provided them that much protection against it. Did some of them have some type of immunization? For example, Nostradamus who was a jewish physician, was immune to the plague...

Here is a map of how widespread the black death was in Europe;

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As we can see, the entirety of Europe was affected expect the Polish area, why was this area spared from this increadibly highly contagious disease?

Because Poland was a safe haven for the jews during this period and periods before that. Poland had offered jews fleeing ''persecution'' that they had experienced in other parts of Europe shelter, it was the go to country if they got caught with their crimes. Much like how Israel functions today. And they were also freely allowed to engage in their economic criminal activities which made them very rich in Poland. So of course Poland would be exempt from the Black Death if we are to believe that jews were behind it because Poland offered no to little resistence against hemand a big concentration of jews lived there as well. By the 15th century, the majority of European jews resided primarily in Poland.

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Source: https://archive.ph/lSlbv