They owned the majority of ships and slaves brought to the United States. They also owned a small majority of slaves in the United States.
At its peak, no more than ~2% of the US population ever owned a slave. And the US had slaves of every color and race, including whites. There were also black slave owners.
A black slave owner sued and set the legal precedent to allow for slavery in the United States.
Basically, without Muslims, blacks, and Jews, it's almost certain slavery would have never been legal. Even if it had been legal, it would have been exceptionally rare.
In the pre-Civil War United States 2% of white gentile households owned slaves. 40% of Jewish households owned slaves. Jews were 2000% more likely to own slaves than white gentiles.
Jews were well under 1% of the US population even as late as 1860. And the vast majority of the increase came long after the US acquired Florida. Read the Spanish Empire.
There were also no 'Rothschilds' in America. Their agent, August Belmont, was a Northern financier and non-slave owner and in any case the Rothschilds were known to be rather unsuccessful in America and bringing them up is neither here nor there anyway. One family from Europe doesn't substantiate the crackpot notion that a small number of Jews had more slave owners than white gentiles that especially before 1830 outnumbered them numerically on a ridiculous scale.
the crackpot notion that a small number of Jews had more slave owners than white gentiles
No one has ever said this. All that was said was that 40% of Jewish households owned slaves, as compared to 2% of gentile households. This, in no way, means that more jews owned slaves than whites.
Second, you argue that the odds that a higher percentage of Jewish households than whites own slaves are so low that the claim is laughable. Whoever argued that this was an unbiased sample? No one, that's who. Now, fair enough, the other guy hasn't provided any references to his claims, but you are using (((intentionally))) flawed logic, in what one must assume is an attempt to persuade us that Jews had nothing to do with slavery.
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NoisyCricket ago
They owned the majority of ships and slaves brought to the United States. They also owned a small majority of slaves in the United States.
At its peak, no more than ~2% of the US population ever owned a slave. And the US had slaves of every color and race, including whites. There were also black slave owners.
A black slave owner sued and set the legal precedent to allow for slavery in the United States.
Basically, without Muslims, blacks, and Jews, it's almost certain slavery would have never been legal. Even if it had been legal, it would have been exceptionally rare.
Joe_McCarthy ago
Jews owned a majority of slaves in the US? L-O-L.
psuchopompos ago
In the pre-Civil War United States 2% of white gentile households owned slaves. 40% of Jewish households owned slaves. Jews were 2000% more likely to own slaves than white gentiles.
Joe_McCarthy ago
There were also almost no Jews in the US in the pre-Civil War era. So that's hardly compelling.
jthun2 ago
Wrong. The Spanish Empire was massively Jewish, and Sephardics living in the southern USA often had Spanish backgrounds.
The Jews started interbreeding with English nobility back in the 1800s.
The Rothschilds were active in the south, giving speeches about the benefits of slavery. David Yulee Levy, Benjamin Judah, etc. Plenty of them.
Joe_McCarthy ago
Man, where to begin with that misinformation.
Jews were well under 1% of the US population even as late as 1860. And the vast majority of the increase came long after the US acquired Florida. Read the Spanish Empire.
There were also no 'Rothschilds' in America. Their agent, August Belmont, was a Northern financier and non-slave owner and in any case the Rothschilds were known to be rather unsuccessful in America and bringing them up is neither here nor there anyway. One family from Europe doesn't substantiate the crackpot notion that a small number of Jews had more slave owners than white gentiles that especially before 1830 outnumbered them numerically on a ridiculous scale.
Lundynne ago
Mate, your argument is completely disingenuous.
No one has ever said this. All that was said was that 40% of Jewish households owned slaves, as compared to 2% of gentile households. This, in no way, means that more jews owned slaves than whites.
Second, you argue that the odds that a higher percentage of Jewish households than whites own slaves are so low that the claim is laughable. Whoever argued that this was an unbiased sample? No one, that's who. Now, fair enough, the other guy hasn't provided any references to his claims, but you are using (((intentionally))) flawed logic, in what one must assume is an attempt to persuade us that Jews had nothing to do with slavery.